Then why do we say that the computational cost of a full covariance matrix is [latex]D^{2}[/latex]? Shouldn’t it be just [latex]\frac{N!}{2(N-2)!}[/latex] ? Or do we simply not differentiate between the two costs?
Some forums are only available if you are logged in. Searching will only return results from those forums if you log in.
This is the new version. Still under construction.Copyright © 2026 · Balance Child Theme on Genesis Framework · WordPress · Log in